According to C.S. Toh (A level study guide), for the graph of y2 = f(x):
Where the graph crosses the x-axis, the gradient of the graph is infinity, i.e., the tangent is vertical. (p. 17)
Many students appeared not to know the features of the graph of y2 = f(x), e.g. that its gradient when it crosses the x-axis is infinite, i.e. the tangent is vertical. (p. 26)
Some of my tuition students tell me that their teachers say the same thing - the tangent at the x-axis should always be vertical for the graph of y2 = f(x).
Where does this vertical tangent thing come from? It seems to be a piece of misinformation. It is true that, for many graphs, the vertical tangent is present. But there are equally many graphs where there is no vertical tangent at the x-axis at all.
E.g. suppose the original graph is y = x2 (red graph) Now we sketch y2 = x2 (blue graph):
Obviously, there is no vertical tangent at the x-axis.
Same thing with y = x3 (red graph) and y2 = x3 (blue graph). There is no vertical tangent at the x-axis:
Any idea why this "vertical tangent" misinformation is going around?
Hi,
Thanks for sharing these counterexamples :)
Students simply rote-learn and teachers/books simplify matters too much :P
Cheers,
Wen Shih
Hi,
Given: y^2 = f(x)
=> 2y y' = f'(x)
=> y' = f'(x) / {2 sqrt(f(x))}.
We may remind students these points:
(i) If f(x) is a perfect square, then we sketch the graph of y = +/- |sqrt(f(x))|.
Example: y = x^2, we sketch y = +/- |x| when we draw the graph of y^2 = x^2.
(ii) If y = f(x) has a stationary point at x = a, then y' = 0.
Example: y = x^3 has a stationary point at x = 0, so y' = 0 at x = 0 when we sketch the graph of y^2 = f(x).
(iii) If y = f(x) has no stationary point at x = a, then y' is undefined.
Example: y = x^3 + x has no stationary point at x = 0, so y' is undefined at x = 0 when we sketch the graph of y^2 = f(x).
What do you think? Thanks in advance!
Thanks.
Cheers,
Wen Shih
wenshih.wordpress.com
Wen Shih, thanks, that equation y' = f'(x) / 2√f(x) is useful !
So, from what I can see, the tangent for y2 = f(x) may be assumed to be vertical at the x-axis provided the original graph does not have a stationary point there.
This is something I can tell my students. Easy to digest.
I'm not comfortable with point (ii) however, cos, if both f(x) and f'(x) = 0, then y' = 0/0, which is undefined also? I think I prefer to say that if the original graph is flat at the x-axis, then the tangent for y2 = f(x) at that point could be anything, i.e., no obligation to draw it as vertical, especially if it's not natural when drawing the graph.