Originally posted by DeadPoet:
Found some studies regarding this.
Studies of blind people in France, Hungary, Egypt, and the United States all found them dreaming of using their nonvisual senses -hearing, touching, smelling, tasting.
For example [b]Taha, F.A. (1972). A comparative study of how sighted and blind perceive the manifest content of dreams. National Review of Social Sciences, 9(3), 28. (p.257)[/b]
yeap, that makes sense. when non blind pple dream, they have sight, smell, hearing.. etc... so of course blind pple will dream the same way that they can percieve the world.
however, it's possible for pple who are not blind to dream that he/she is. to reverse this scenario, what will it be like if a blind person dreams that he/she is not blind, and have the power of sight? will they feel disturbed and confused, much like a non-blind person would feel if he/she dreamt that he/she is blind?